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Unread 12-30-2010, 09:23 PM
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W.F. Lantry W.F. Lantry is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Richard Meyer View Post
Perhaps I'm misreading your comments, Bill, but you seem to be suggesting that Shakespeare was some sort of language conservative who only broke the rules when poking fun at the vulgar classes.
Richard,

Thanks for your note. No, I didn't mean that at all, just meant to point out a particular case. Like most others, he seemed to use language to indicate social class in his characters, though... just look at his Gallicisms when he's writing speeches for the ruling class characters. The best examples (and best philological contrasts) are probably in the history plays, like Henry IV, both one and two.

Was he a conservative in his use of language? Yes, I do think of him that way. I don't think he requires any special pleading, he's just a playwright, like all the rest. And Dante's just a poet, not some kind of unquestionable god. Was he conservative in his language as well? Yes, I think he was...

Thanks,

Bill
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