Shaun, if the sonnets are the main evidence that Shakespeare was gay, isn't it strange that Shakespeare published them and (as far as I know, I'm no Shakespeare scholar) that people back then did not seem to notice or care that he was outing himself? That doesn't seem likely to me. More likely, I think, is that he used extravagant language to kiss up to a vain moneybags. What am I missing? Did Shakespeare, in effect, publicly confess to being gay in his lifetime by publishing the sonnets?
|