In reply to Alan's and Caleb's comments on
elision, I guess I would say that no, I don't think there is any "new rule" about syllables, nor do I think Frost and others "can't" use anapests as substitutions. This began to be very popular in the late Romantic and early Victorian eras (Tennyson liked to sub anapests a lot), and I have no objections to it--as long as it's kept under control.
But the Hope is like Shakespeare--lots of elision in the sonnets, a group of poems we have no way of knowing if Shakespeare saw through "publication," though I'm almost 145% certain he didn't (repeated lines in two separate sonnets, a 12-liner, the extremely personal nature of the address to the young man, etc.).
As to whether or not we are justified in seeing elision in poets who do not "do" it themselves (i.e., "e'er" and "e'en,"), there is really no way to tell. All of Shakespeare's sonnets work out perfectly iambic with no more than ONE occasional elision per line. I just finished teaching "Romeo and Juliet," by the way,
and another way one can tell if Shakespeare was trying for perfect iambs is to notice that Romeo is pronounced two different ways depending on the word's placement in the line--according to meter, in other words: ROAM-yo (2 syllables) and RO-mee-O. Shakespeare does the exact same thing with Cassio in "Othello."
Cheers to all!
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