(Both William Shakespeare and Ben Jonson seem to suggest they know at least some Welsh, so Welsh conferred social status a century earlier).
Christopher, one (possible) garbled word in AYLI and some exchanges and a song in Welsh (whether genuine or simulated) in one scene in H4 Pt 1 hardly suggests to me that Shakespeare necessarily knew any Welsh, any more than the scene in French in Henry V suggests that he was necessarily a fluent French speaker.
He could get enough 'French' for theatrical purposes from French Huguenots in London. Similarly 'Welsh' from Welsh-speaking informants in the community, actors or musicians. The actors of the day had to memorise parts from many different plays and could probably manage enough 'Welsh' to pass as such for a largely English-speaking audience, whatever they were actually saying.
Shakespeare doesn't suggest anything about knowing some Welsh, and even if he had how does it follow that this shows that Welsh conferred social status in England in late Elizabethan times? Birth, money, a grant of arms, yes, but a knowledge of Welsh . . . antiquarian street cred at best.
Shakespeare provided dialogue to bring characters to life on the stage. You cannot infer from Hotspur's theatrically effective attitude to Glendower that the playwright necessarily shared this view of him as a pretentious windbag.
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